A 42-year-old male with major depressive disorder and chronic pain was recently started on venlafaxine 150 mg daily in addition to his existing tramadol regimen. He presents to the clinic five days later with agitation, diaphoresis, temperature of 101.2°F, bilateral lower extremity clonus, hyperreflexia, and loose stools. His CK level is 380 U/L. The medical team is considering whether this presentation represents serotonin syndrome or neuroleptic malignant syndrome. The PMHNP is asked to evaluate the clinical findings and determine the most likely diagnosis. Which of the following best represents the accurate evaluation of this clinical presentation?