A 29-year-old woman at 24 weeks gestation presents with worsening depressive symptoms including persistent low mood, anhedonia, insomnia, poor appetite with inadequate weight gain, difficulty bonding with the pregnancy, and passive suicidal ideation without intent or plan. Her PHQ-9 score is 21. She has a history of two prior major depressive episodes that responded well to sertraline, but she discontinued the medication upon learning of the pregnancy at 6 weeks gestation on the advice of a family member. She has been participating in weekly interpersonal therapy for four weeks with minimal improvement. She has no history of bipolar disorder, psychosis, or substance use. The PMHNP is developing a comprehensive treatment plan that addresses the risk-benefit considerations of pharmacotherapy during pregnancy. Which of the following best represents the appropriate treatment planning approach?