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Questions/Treatment Planning/Q51 of 140
intermediatemetabolic monitoringatypical antipsychoticschizophreniametabolic syndromecardiovascular risk
A 28-year-old man with schizophrenia was recently initiated on an atypical antipsychotic with known high metabolic risk. He has no current metabolic abnormalities, a BMI of 24, normal fasting glucose, and a normal lipid panel. He has no family history of diabetes. His PMHNP is developing a metabolic monitoring plan. Which of the following best describes the rationale for the recommended monitoring approach?
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