Terms of Service · Privacy Policy · Disclaimer
By using this site you agree to our Terms of Service and Disclaimer.
PMHNP Helper
Practice QuestionsCase Library
MedicationsDiagnosesDifferentials
FlashcardsStudy Plan
PricingAbout
Practice QuestionsCase LibraryMedicationsDiagnosesDifferentialsFlashcardsStudy PlanPricingAbout
Questions/Treatment Planning/Q77 of 140
intermediateschizophreniamedication adherencelong-acting injectablerelapse preventiontreatment planning
A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has been hospitalized three times in the past two years, each time following medication discontinuation. During each hospitalization, he responded well to risperidone oral tablets, achieving remission of psychotic symptoms within three to four weeks. However, within two to three months of discharge, he stops taking his oral medication, citing forgetfulness, feeling that he no longer needs it once symptoms resolve, and disliking the daily reminder of his illness. He has a supportive family, attends follow-up appointments consistently, and has good insight into his diagnosis when stable. He is currently nearing discharge after his most recent hospitalization and is again responding well to oral risperidone. The PMHNP is developing a discharge plan to address the recurring non-adherence pattern. Which of the following best represents the most appropriate treatment planning strategy?
← PreviousAll Treatment PlanningNext →