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Questions/Treatment Planning/Q110 of 140
hardfirst-episode psychosisantipsychoticssecond-generation antipsychoticstreatment initiationmetabolic monitoring
A 22-year-old male college student is brought to an outpatient psychiatric clinic by his parents after a two-month history of increasing social withdrawal, disorganized speech, auditory hallucinations commanding him to stay silent, and paranoid ideation that classmates are recording him. He has no prior psychiatric history, no substance use confirmed by urine drug screen, and medical workup including thyroid function and brain MRI are unremarkable. His PANSS total score is 78. He is cooperative but guarded, with intact insight that something is wrong. The PMHNP is developing an initial medication management plan. Which of the following represents the most appropriate pharmacological planning approach for this patient?
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