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Questions/Treatment Planning/Q126 of 140
hardadolescent depressionattachment-based family therapyfamily therapyPHQ-Afluoxetineattachmentparent engagementsuicidal ideation
A 15-year-old female with major depressive disorder has been participating in attachment-based family therapy (ABFT) with her parents for 12 weeks, concurrent with fluoxetine 20 mg daily initiated at the same time. Her baseline PHQ-A score was 20, and she endorsed passive suicidal ideation without plan or intent. At today's evaluation, her PHQ-A score is 10, and she denies any current suicidal ideation. During the family session component, the therapist reports that the parent-adolescent conflict has decreased significantly, the mother has shifted from a critical to a more validating communication style, and the patient has begun disclosing emotional experiences to her parents rather than withdrawing to her room. However, the patient's father has attended only four of twelve sessions due to work conflicts and maintains a dismissive stance toward the therapy, stating his daughter just needs to toughen up. The patient reports feeling closer to her mother but continues to feel emotionally distant from her father. The school counselor reports improved attendance but ongoing social withdrawal from peers. The PMHNP is evaluating the family therapy outcomes and their contribution to the overall treatment response. Which of the following best represents the appropriate evaluation?
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