A 58-year-old male with major depressive disorder has been stable on venlafaxine 225 mg daily for 18 months. He was recently diagnosed with stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD) with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 38 mL/min. His most recent PHQ-9 is 5, indicating sustained remission. His nephrologist has initiated dietary modifications and blood pressure management. The patient reports no change in mood or psychiatric symptoms. Routine labs show BUN of 42 mg/dL, creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL, and mild hyperphosphatemia. His blood pressure on current antihypertensives is 142/88 mmHg. He has no peripheral edema and his urine output is adequate. The PMHNP is evaluating the impact of the new CKD diagnosis on his ongoing psychiatric medication management. Which of the following best represents the appropriate evaluation?