A 34-year-old female with a 10-year history of focal epilepsy controlled on lamotrigine 200 mg daily presents with a 3-month history of depressed mood, anhedonia, psychomotor retardation, and passive suicidal ideation without plan or intent. Her PHQ-9 score is 16. Her neurologist confirms good seizure control with her last seizure occurring 14 months ago. She has no prior antidepressant trials. She reports that her depressive symptoms significantly impair her ability to work and maintain relationships. The PMHNP is planning pharmacologic treatment for her depression. Which approach is most appropriate?