A 34-year-old African American male with treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stable on clozapine 450 mg daily for 8 months. He has documented benign ethnic neutropenia (BEN). His routine complete blood count returns an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 1,100 cells/µL. He is clinically well with no signs of infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step based on current monitoring guidelines?